The language in the excerpt holds its own logical failure. It says that we do not know about puberty or higher levels of testosterone. But we can know these things in lots of ways. So you have to ask the question, if we DO know that a male has gone through puberty, which entails almost by definition higher levels of testosterone, should we THEN prohibit their participation in women’s sports? If you say it is OK if conversion comes before puberty but not after then the conclusion of the paragraph is not valid.